Of course, we cannot not deny that the antichrist spirit is becoming more pronounced in world leaders and their policies, nor that the antichrist spirit may eventually be manifested through one man. But the "man of sin" and the "son of perdition" phrases in 2 Thessalonians chapter 2 are qualified by another of Paul's phrases in verse 8 "And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming." Virtually all modern translations use the phrase "the lawless one" here but the original does not include the word "one" in this phrase, suggesting that it is a person. The original only says "the wicked" with the masculine modifier ὅς (ἄνομος Strong's number: g0459) and so in the King James.
Like most modern translators, it was over these phrases in 2 Thessalonians chapter 2, where the early Church fathers began to depart from John's message about the antichrist spirit. They saw that all the persecution of the early Church was coming from the Roman Emperors and understandably began to refer to them as "the antichrist". The word "antichrist" itself was not capitalized in the early Church until Tertullian (155 A.D to 255 A.D.)
why does Paul call him the MAN of sin and the son of perdition in 2 Thess 2 verses 1 thru 12?
Of course, we cannot not deny that the antichrist spirit is becoming more pronounced in world leaders and their policies, nor that the antichrist spirit may eventually be manifested through one man. But the "man of sin" and the "son of perdition" phrases in 2 Thessalonians chapter 2 are qualified by another of Paul's phrases in verse 8 "And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming." Virtually all modern translations use the phrase "the lawless one" here but the original does not include the word "one" in this phrase, suggesting that it is a person. The original only says "the wicked" with the masculine modifier ὅς (ἄνομος Strong's number: g0459) and so in the King James.
Like most modern translators, it was over these phrases in 2 Thessalonians chapter 2, where the early Church fathers began to depart from John's message about the antichrist spirit. They saw that all the persecution of the early Church was coming from the Roman Emperors and understandably began to refer to them as "the antichrist". The word "antichrist" itself was not capitalized in the early Church until Tertullian (155 A.D to 255 A.D.)
It is nice we can disagree and still love
Thank you Terry.